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| Dan Y.
June 28, 2010
8:23:30 AM
Entry #: 3514202
| It all depends on if the umpire feels that the fielder "had possession of or in the act of fielding the baseball." Even without having the ball the fielder's actions could be legal. As you can tell, the phrase is highly subjective, and how one official interprets it may slightly vary from the next guy.
In your situation you said that F6 was set up waiting to take a throw from F2. If the ball hasn't left F2's hand yet when contact occured, you probably have obstruction. If the ball is in the air and near the pitcher's mound you probably have a legal play.
In LL, High School, and NCAA the rulings would all be slightly different.
Dan Y.
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